Message-ID: <28710192.1075853125997.JavaMail.evans@thyme> Date: Fri, 20 Jul 2001 11:28:57 -0700 (PDT) From: michelle.cash@enron.com To: dana.bryant@enron.com Subject: RE: another question Mime-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit X-From: Cash, Michelle X-To: Bryant, Dana X-cc: X-bcc: X-Folder: \MCASH (Non-Privileged)\Cash, Michelle\Sent Items X-Origin: Cash-M X-FileName: MCASH (Non-Privileged).pst Not a problem if the employee does not date it. The issue of signature by the company that the agreement is not fully executed until it is signed by company. MHC -----Original Message----- From: Bryant, Dana Sent: Friday, July 20, 2001 11:38 AM To: Cash, Michelle Subject: another question Michelle, I have run across a few agreements where the employee has signed the agreement but not dated it. Is this something that could potentially be a problem? I think that, for our (exec comp) purposes, the agreement is not actually in effect until it is signed by the person "offering" the terms. Is this true? Thank you Dana